Huh, invariant() {...} ?
Myron Alexander
someone at somewhere.com
Mon Jun 18 12:07:17 PDT 2007
Walter Bright wrote:
> Kristian Kilpi wrote:
>>
>> This is a small detail, but I found myself wondering why the class
>> invariant declarations have now parenthesis (in 2.0, that is).
>
> It was to remove syntactical ambiguities.
Walter,
I have nothing against the invariant() syntax. The word invariant has
specific meaning for contracts but not necessarily for variables.
Was the keyword "immutable" considered and rejected? I only ask because
you have two semantics for one keyword: one meaning DbC test, another
meaning changeless value.
Regards,
Myron.
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