[OT] - does IP exist?

Yigal Chripun yigal100 at gmail.com
Mon Aug 18 01:39:57 PDT 2008


Manfred_Nowak wrote:
> Adam D. Ruppe wrote:
> 
>> if a person was
>> copyrightable, he would have the legal power to force his kids not
>> to have any kids of their own
> 
> Not at all, because
> 1) "copy" has the connotation of a non canonical mere technical 
> procedure
> 2) one would have to define reproduction, especially sexual 
> reproduction, to be copying
> 3) if 2) has been done, then the first child has the legal right to 
> force his parents to have no more childs or---that its parents have had 
> no right to copy it to what it is now, especially if the child is 
> somehow disabled 
> 4) the clinch resulting out of 3) seems unsolvable and a try to 
> establish the above force on one's own kids might be interpretable as 
> an abuse
> 
> Therefore the main counter argument is provided by 1) and 2): sexual 
> reproduction is not definable to be "copying"
> 
> -manfred
> 

Huh?
your logic is unclear to me - how can a child legally force his parents
not to have more kids?
in what way is it relevant at all if the kid is indeed with some disability?



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