Found this link about 0^^0: http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.to.0.power.html I think this explains pretty well why Wolfram is justified in saying 0^^0 is indeterminate, but a PL like D is perfectly justified in saying it's 1. In particular the article asserts: "Consensus has recently been built around setting the value of 0^0 = 1" --bb