strong enums: why implicit conversion to basetype?

Trass3r un at known.com
Thu Jan 26 08:02:03 PST 2012


>> Is there any merit in having implicit conversion to the 
>> basetype?
>
> Yes. Otherwise it would be at least close to equivalence to a 
> `typedef'.

Even typedef implicitly converts in one of the directions.
A named enum is a separate type with a finite set of allowed 
values defined by the user.


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