Bypassing the postblit?

Ritu ritu at metaprogramming.net
Mon Dec 30 03:26:33 PST 2013


> Why would you want access to the original struct though, if you 
> have a bit for bit copy? The *only* reason I could imagine, is 
> to *mutate* the original struct...

Yes. That way I could make sure that the class object in the 
struct gets lazily initialized to the same object in both the 
source and the copied struct instance. So in the appender example 
you earlier gave, both app1 and app2 can have the same internal 
object.

But then the source object may not be mutable. I am not a 
compiler expert, but could a special case be made in D compiler 
for the cases where the source struct instance is mutable and is 
made available to ease such lazy initialization?

Regards
- Ritu


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