On Monday, 9 April 2018 at 03:35:07 UTC, Ali Çehreli wrote: > ... > I don't have any problem with that part either. The following > makes sense to me. I may have even used it in the past (likely > in C++): > > (cond ? a : b) = foo; > ... For me as a C programmer this is different. What happens in this case? It will be assign foo to either a or b? Matt.