[OT] - does IP exist?
    Manfred_Nowak 
    svv1999 at hotmail.com
       
    Sun Aug 17 23:21:16 PDT 2008
    
    
  
Adam D. Ruppe wrote:
> if a person was
> copyrightable, he would have the legal power to force his kids not
> to have any kids of their own
Not at all, because
1) "copy" has the connotation of a non canonical mere technical 
procedure
2) one would have to define reproduction, especially sexual 
reproduction, to be copying
3) if 2) has been done, then the first child has the legal right to 
force his parents to have no more childs or---that its parents have had 
no right to copy it to what it is now, especially if the child is 
somehow disabled 
4) the clinch resulting out of 3) seems unsolvable and a try to 
establish the above force on one's own kids might be interpretable as 
an abuse
Therefore the main counter argument is provided by 1) and 2): sexual 
reproduction is not definable to be "copying"
-manfred
-- 
Maybe some knowledge of some types of disagreeing and their relation 
can turn out to be useful:
http://blog.createdebate.com/2008/04/07/writing-strong-arguments/
    
    
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