[OT] - does IP exist?
Manfred_Nowak
svv1999 at hotmail.com
Sun Aug 17 23:21:16 PDT 2008
Adam D. Ruppe wrote:
> if a person was
> copyrightable, he would have the legal power to force his kids not
> to have any kids of their own
Not at all, because
1) "copy" has the connotation of a non canonical mere technical
procedure
2) one would have to define reproduction, especially sexual
reproduction, to be copying
3) if 2) has been done, then the first child has the legal right to
force his parents to have no more childs or---that its parents have had
no right to copy it to what it is now, especially if the child is
somehow disabled
4) the clinch resulting out of 3) seems unsolvable and a try to
establish the above force on one's own kids might be interpretable as
an abuse
Therefore the main counter argument is provided by 1) and 2): sexual
reproduction is not definable to be "copying"
-manfred
--
Maybe some knowledge of some types of disagreeing and their relation
can turn out to be useful:
http://blog.createdebate.com/2008/04/07/writing-strong-arguments/
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