The Death of D. (Was Tango vs Phobos)
Steven Schveighoffer
schveiguy at yahoo.com
Mon Aug 18 07:01:41 PDT 2008
"Adam D. Ruppe" wrote
> If I take a screenshot of a computer program, that is considered copyright
> infringement (in the US anyway, as I understand it. Disclaimer: I'm no
> lawyer,
> so I might be wrong, but I don't think so.)
>
> I'm not copying the work - I'm providing a detailed description
> of a portion of it (its user interface).
Nope. The original author of the software cannot possibly copyright all
possible screenshots. Copyrights only apply to a specific piece of media,
and since you were the creator of that media, you can copyright it.
However, it may contain trademarked elements, such as a logo. However, it
is possible to have trademarked material as long as you are critiquing
something, and you represent who the owner of the trademark is properly.
Even if there was some possible way to copyright the UI, this should fall
under fair use as you are presenting a 'clip' of a copyrighted piece of
media for critique.
> If I write a piece of fan fiction starring Captain Kirk and the starship
> Enterprise, I'm technically infringing on Paramount Picture's copyright,
> since my book would be considered a derivative work of Star Trek.
Nope, but you are infringing on the trademark names of 'Captain Kirk' and
the starship 'Enterprise'. I think there is probably some restriction on
making money from the trademark.
If you wrote a book with 'Captian Jerk' and the starship 'Doorprize', then
you would have no problem :)
> That is the worst case - I would have copied no actual words, just the
> abstract information of Kirk's characterisation. Yet, technically, the
> law says I can't do that without Paramount's permission.
Because you would be using Paramount's trademarks in order to make money.
There is a huge amount of weight behind those simple words, and most likely,
you would enjoy Paramount's ability to sell anything that is star trek
related, without having created the original idea. That is why trademark
law exists.
> One could easily argue that transmitting something like source code
> down the Internet is sending a very detailed description of the product
> (product == the compiled executable) rather than copying the work.
The source code is also copyrighted. Copyright is inherently assigned to
the author (even if he doesn't label it as such). He can assign the
copyright to someone else if he wants.
> I didn't copy the executable itself - I sent a detailed description of it.
> This description just happens to be detailed enough for the compiler to
> create
> a perfect copy from it.
If you sent a detailed description of the source code (i.e. an english
description of how it works), this is not a violation of copyright, as you
cannot copyright ideas. Many companies use 'clean room' techniques where
one team disassembles code, figures out how it works, then describes that to
another team which writes a compatible piece of software. They are not
infringing on copyright because the developers have not seen any of the
original code.
In some countries, however, you can patent software 'business methods', i.e.
ideas (which to me is absurd for software).
> The only difference between that description and a verbal description
> of the program is the resolution of detail. In both cases, I am spreading
> information about it.
No, the difference is that the code is copyrighted. If you build the code
from reverse engineering, it is a derivative work. The verbal description
is a description of the ideas, which are not copyrightable.
-Steve
More information about the Digitalmars-d
mailing list