strong enums: why implicit conversion to basetype?

Manfred Nowak svv1999 at hotmail.com
Thu Jan 26 06:58:57 PST 2012


Trass3r wrote:

> Is there any merit in having implicit conversion to the basetype?

Yes. Otherwise it would be at least close to equivalence to a 
`typedef'.

-manfred



More information about the Digitalmars-d mailing list